The wife of Bath storey! Through the wife of Bath, does Chaucer outset or uphold the misogynist views of her time? Geoffrey Chaucer was born in the year of 1340/44 and died in the year of 1400. Chaucer was born in London, England. Chaucer wrote the Canterbury tales, which at that time was very famous. Chaucer was famous for his poems. In my imprecate opinion I think Geoffrey Chaucer was not against women. I cockeyed this because in his writings he wanted to show the creation that women played in their own monastic nine. I believe this because if Chaucer were against women, he would show his hatred towards them, for example he would exaggerate more(prenominal) on how women are iniquitous to there husbands. In the tale The Wife of Bath Chaucer never intimated his hatred for women, he took the type of society and added that to his tale. For example, from the handout marriage in the last paginate from Gies and Gies citadel 87, and 90, it said, Love could not exist with out jealously and greedily mustiness have existed. To make my point, I am look that at the time Chaucer is including the womens role.
Nevertheless, I think that Chaucer wanted to designate or to show the public about how badly women were treated, and in order to prove this he wrote all these poems, example: Canterbury tales, etc! I in any case believe if he was against women then why did he learn women want power, and at the end of his tale, the former unspeakable/ woeful old lady did have power. If you want to position a full essay, order it on our website: BestEssayCheap.com
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